Do you have evidence it was more likely a female name?
You think it is exactly 50/50 odds?
You don't think it's possible to reason and make educated estimates?
Of all known ancient societies which are considered contenders for having left the earliest example of writing, how many seem to have been more patriarchal than totally fair or matriarchal? Let's think about it...
I think you have no evidence for that claim. Lot of ancient societies had equality (Egypt) or were even female dominated (ancient Crete).